The first section of this chapter relates to questions and objections that the Jew would make against the conclusions in the previous chapter. Consider verses 1- 9 as dialogue between Paul and an objecting Jew.
WHAT ADVANTAGE THEN HATH THE JEW?>> what pre-eminence? Question posed. The statement in the former chapter might suppose that they had no special advantage ("For he is not a Jew which is one outwardly" v.28). But no, the Jew did have a superior standing to Gentile. It consisted chiefly in the law and prophets as he goes on to show.
WHAT PROFIT IS THERE OF CIRCUMCISION>>what usefulness? Paul drops this question for the time being but picks it up in chapter four. There he makes the point that Abraham was "counted righteous" prior to circumcision, even when he was in uncircumcision. (ch.4:10)
MUCH EVERY WAY: CHIEFLY, UNTO THEM WERE COMMITTED THE ORACLES OF GOD.>>They had the light and knowledge contained in the law and prophets; the will of God was revealed therein, and the promises of the Messiah, from which springs hope and expectation, were plainly and abundantly stated.
This gave them a tremendous advantage over the Gentile, who was limited to the revelation of Nature.
"oracles"...an utterance, that which was spoken; particuliarly the Mosaic law, but also to include the whole of O.T.
FOR WHAT IF SOME DID NOT BELIEVE?>> That is, did not believe the oracles of God; disbelieve, be unfaithful.
When confronted with truth, there are only two responses: accept it as truth or reject it. The response one makes to truth greatly determines the course\direction his life takes.
[Essentially, there is no difference between unbelief and disobedience. They both are a faulty response to truth; the former to the truth contained in the plain statements God made concerning His actions, the latter to the truth contained in His precepts relating to human action.]
SHALL THEIR UNBELIEF MAKE THE FAITH OF GOD WITHOUT EFFECT?>> some would reply, "Yes", to this question. They suppose their rejection carries such force as to pose a hinderance to God, His plans and purposes.
Some object to the concept of God having "faith". The objection is usually grounded on the idea that it would (in some way) lower God to a lesser status, or detract from His attributes. I disagree with this reasoning. This view (in my opinion) only appears to have validity if our view of "faith" is too contracted. It has been my experience, in the study of the subject of faith and hearing others comment on it, that the subject has multiple facets. Indeed, the bible gives varying definitions of it. In this verse, it appears to me that the words "Truth of God" could be substituted for "faith of God" and do no violence to the context. Rather, it would appear to harmonize nicely with particular points Paul has made in his arguments in both preceding chapters; specifically, regarding the revelation of truth--whether in Nature or the Law.
In this larger context, "the faith of God" in this verse, goes beyond the common and simplified definition of "fruit of the Spirit" or "gift of God". It's close proximity with the statement,"the oracles of God", connect it with a special revelation, i.e., the law and prophets. It refers to the Old Testament revelation of God's will.
Note: In this verse, verse 5, and verse 7, we have an interesting progression of contrasts between God and man.
Verse 3: faith of God vs. unbelief of man.
Verse 5: righteousness of God vs. our unrighteousness.
Verse 7: truth of God vs. my lie\falsehood.
GOD FORBID>>Emphatic denial that this could be the case.
YEA, LET GOD BE TRUE AND EVERY MAN A LIAR>> more strongly to the contrary, for God is true and sovereign in all his ways and works; nor does his purpose pivot on the fickleness of man.
God is true and we are thinking rightly when we concur.
BUT IF OUR UNRIGHTEOUSNESS COMMEND THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD>> It is evident that in the darkness of our unrighteousness, God's righteousness (by contrast) shines the brighter; that is to say, we are able to percieve it the clearer. This phenomenon occurs when contrasting things are compared; but it must not to be taken by this that our unrighteousness adds or contributes anything to God's righteousness.
WHAT SHALL WE SAY? IS GOD UNRIGHTEOUS WHO TAKETH VENGEANCE?>> The former does not allow the conclusion some had drawn, namely, that God would be unjust to punish sinners in such a case. Paul repudiates this unusual argument by an emphatic "God forbid".
I suspect that the argument he counters arises from those who come from the "no hell" and the "universalist" camp. They talk of the love of God, but know not that He also loves justice, equity and righteousness. These characters also identify with those in the argument of verse three who held the idea that God was greatly hindered by man's unbelief. Either way, they both unite in opposition to the truth of God.
(I SPEAK AS A MAN)>> [As if to say, "pardon me for this line of argument". Paul had not forgotten his rabbinical training. A.T. Robertson]
GOD FORBID: FOR THEN HOW SHALL GOD JUDGE THE WORLD?>>Strong rebuttal. If that were the case, then God would be in a position where he couldn't act or make rulings on men's conduct. At best, this would make God but a mere observer in the "moral world" (deism), with no authority to execute judgment. On the darker side it portrays God as being unjust to condemn transgressing creatures.
FOR IF THE TRUTH OF GOD HATH MORE ABOUNDED THROUGH MY LIE UNTO HIS GLORY>>
First, There is no lie that can bring more glory to God than the truth. By it's nature a lie can only darken truth. This verse connects with the objector's argument in verse 5.
[ Paul "transfers" the argument to the "1st person".(ATR)]
Essentially, this verse simply restates the argument; before the contrast was righteousness and unrighteousness; here, the contrast is truth and lies (verse 3 the contrast was faith of God and mans' unbelief).
WHY YET AM I ALSO JUDGED AS A SINNER?>> Man's purpose is to praise and glorify God. The objector's argument is that, "Our unrighteousness praises God in that it causes him to appear more righteous, therefore, it would be unjust for God to punish." ('the end justifies the means'; an argument which ignores the nature of sin) Pauls simple answer completely refutes the argument: "Why yet am I judged as a sinner?" Cavil and query all you want, the fact remains that we are guilty sinners before God.
AND NOT RATHER, (AS WE BE SLANDEROUSLY REPORTED, AND SOME AFFIRM WE SAY,) LET US DO EVIL THAT GOOD MAY COME>>The objector's argument is here refined and dressed up to give the appearance of a principle. Enemies of the Gospel had even attributed this maxim to the Apostles. Paul simply answers, "Their damnation is just."
Note: A simple response best answers sophistry.
This same charge resurfaces in chapter six in a different context. So, the doctrine of Grace confounds the wisdom of men, and their stale arguments continue to resurface in sucessive generations.
WHAT THEN? ARE WE BETTER THAN THEY?>>Paul includes himself as a Jew; "Are we Jews (because of our advantage) better than gentiles?"
This contrasts with verse 1&2, where he showed that they did have an advantage over Gentiles. However, their advantage did not relate to any merit on their part, but to the additional revelation God committed unto them.
IN NO WISE: WE HAVE BEFORE PROVED BOTH JEW AND GENTILE, THEY ARE ALL UNDER SIN>>
The phrase "before proved", indicates an argument already made. This occurs in the first two chapters of this epistle. Gentiles are charged under sin by their rejection of truth revealed in "natural revelation" (chapter one); Jews, by their rejection of truth in the Law. (chapter two). Therefore all under sin.
NOTE: the charge "all under sin" is made and established and he has yet to bring in "original sin". (ch.5) A strong case.
AS IT IS WRITTEN, THERE IS NONE RIGHTEOUS , NO NOT ONE:>> He begins a flood of testimony in proof of his argument "All are under sin." None faultless or innocent, much less virtuous.
Through verse twelve he highlights the sinner's noticable lack of several key virtues; in verses 13-18 he spotlights the numerous faults and vices which make them so odious.
NONE UNDERSTAND>>None "put or set together" the things of God in their mind.
NONE SEEKETH>>none "search or investigate" God. No appetite for godly things.
ALL GONE OUT OF THE WAY>>To deviate, pervert from the right way.
THEY ARE ALL TOGETHER BECOME UNPROFITABLE>> They all at once,"together" became useless and unserviceable. This strongly suggests the corporate fall of man in Adam.
NONE DOETH GOOD, NO NOT ONE.>> None doeth "moral goodness" i.e., kindness.
THEIR THROAT IS AN OPEN SEPULCHER>>Metaphore: the stench and coruption of nature as an opened grave.
WITH THEIR TONGUES THEY HAVE USED DECEIT>> deception with intent to corupt and deaden others.
THE POISON OF ASPS UNDER THEIR LIPS>> spoken of men given to reviling and calmniating and thereby injuring others. TDNT
[the poison of asps (Egyptian cobra) lies in a bag under the lips.ATR]
MOUTH FULL OF CURSING AND BITTERNESS>>To curse: to speak down on a person. evil speaking. See 2 Sam.16:5 of Shimei cursing David.
Bitterness: the harsh language of hatred and resentment Pr.26:24
FEET ARE SWIFT TO SHED BLOOD:>>This verse is progressive from the former. Before was verbal violence, here it escalates to physical violence.
DESTRUCTION AND MISERY ARE IN THEIR WAYS:>>
Destruction: that which is broken or shattered. A tearing down: of property, of morals, of relationships.
Misery: hardship, calamity, grief, trouble.
Ways: a travelled road, (metaphor) a chosen course of conduct
AND THE WAY OF PEACE THEY HAVE NOT KNOWN>>
Way: road travelled, course of conduct.
Known: to understand or be familiar with.
Peace: a state of national tranquillity; exemption from the rage and havoc of war; peace between individuals, i.e. harmony, concord. (TDNT)
THERE IS NO FEAR OF GOD BEFORE THEIR EYES.>>
Fear: (phobos) a dread or terror. A reverence for; to be in awe of.
Eyes: (metaphor) the understanding and apprehension.
NOW WE KNOW THAT WHAT THINGS SOEVER THE LAW SAYETH, IT SAYETH TO THEM WHO ARE UNDER THE LAW>> Israel was given the law and prophets. That was their advantage. Therefore, what the law saith is especially to the Jew, and was a dispensation to them.
However, there is much contained in the OT which is spoken of the gentiles, their wickedness, their idolatry, and unrighteousness. They therefore are condemned by what the law saith against them.
In a secondary sense it is to Gentile as well for they also are under the moral government of God. Additionally, he has shown that God's judgment is not confined or limited to the jurisdiction of Mosaic law (chapter one), and, "as many as have sinned without law, shall also perish without law:" ch.2:12
This occured with the pre-flood world, Sodom, Egypt, and the other Gentile nations.
THAT EVERY MOUTH MAY BE STOPPED, AND ALL THE WORLD MAY BECOME GUILTY BEFORE GOD.>> all subject to the judgment of God.
None exempt from the Judgment of God; as for the charge of sin, all are "put to silence" and come under the moral government of God.
THEREFORE BY THE DEEDS OF THE LAW SHALL NO FLESH BE JUSTIFIED>>an obvious conclusion from the last verse.
All who seek acquital from sin by meritous deeds and righteousness by law shall be put to shame. For by the law none shall be justified, but rather, are charged with guilt.
FOR BY THE LAW IS THE KNOWLEDGE OF SIN.>> "knowledge of sin" The law "spotlights" sin, points the finger at it and makes it appear sin. Our moral vision is so poor that we hardly perceive sin, or when we do, we fail to discern the magnitude of it's ugly nature.
BUT NOW>>something new and different is brought into the discussion. THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD WITHOUT THE LAW IS MANIFESTED>> Heretofore, he has discussed God's Righteousness as it relates to the "just condemnation" of sinners and transgressors. He concluded his arguments in v.19 with, "all the world is guilty before God".
In this verse he begins to examine a distinctly different avenue of God's Righteousness (without\apart from the law); the Righteousness of God exhibited in saving/justifying "sinners" from their just condemnation under sin. The great marvel of this process is that Justice is maintained; there is no ignoring of sin and it's punishment, nor oversight of the sinners guilt.
BEING WITNESSED>>to bear witness, i.e. to affirm that one has seen or heard or experienced something, or that he knows it because taught by divine revelation or inspiration. TDNT
BY THE LAW AND THE PROPHETS;>>Jesus taught that the old testament bore witness of him,
"Search the scriptures, for in them ye think ye have eternal life, and they are they which testify of me." Jn.5:39
"For had ye believed Moses, ye would hae believed me: for he wrote of me." v.46
EVEN THE RIGHTEOUSNESS OF GOD WHICH IS BY FAITH OF JESUS CHRIST>>This righteousness is a promised righteousness. It concerns His Son, and God's eternal purpose in him (Ep.3:11).
"Faith of Jesus Christ" refers to at least two things:
(1) the act of faith by Jesus (as man) in fulfilling the law and His Father's will,
(2) the source/origin/substance of the revelation of God's righteousness and purpose in Jesus Christ. [faith- method/mode by which this righteousness is manifested.]
The former relates to the efficient working of Christ, the latter to the fore-ordained promise and purpose of his coming.
NOTE: The Law, and Faith, are set in the larger context as two distinct modes of God revealing His righteousness.
1).The Law reveals His righteousness in justly condemning sinners;
2).Faith reveals His righteousness in the justification of sinners. ("...that he might be just, and the justifier of him that believeth in Jesus." v.26)
This distinction will greatly assist in defining the (much misunderstood) phrase, "Justified by faith" or "Justification by faith". These phrases generally denote the mode or channel through which Justification occurs, as opposed to and distinct from the Law. Paul goes to great length to make this distinction.
When we get to the statement in chapter five, "Therefore being justified by faith,..." we define it as the mode or channel by which justification occurs, for it is clear that the Law is not the mode/source for justifing righteousness. ("By the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight." 3:20)
[the terms, "justified by faith" and "justified by believing" are not equivalent. Yet many interpret the statement in Romans 5:1 as though they were. It is true that the scriptures teach that "believers are justified", but nowhere is it taught that one is "justified by believing". The act of believing is a work and therefore is not able to "exclude boasting". However, Paul makes it clear that "justification by faith" prohibits any room for boasting--it is excluded.(3: 27,28)]
UNTO ALL AND UPON ALL THEM THAT BELIEVE: FOR THERE IS NO DIFFERENCE>> "Unto all" refers to Gentiles as well as Jews as the context shows. It does not refer to every human being as some suppose. The last clause shows that it is Jew and Gentile under consideration: "there is no difference", that is, no distinction between Jew and Gentile.
FOR ALL HAVE SINNED,>> This verse connects with the former by the word "For". It continues in the same thought; "all have sinned"- missed the mark- wandered from the path; both Jew and Gentile. All are guilty before God.
AND COME SHORT>>to be inferior; to be left behind in a race and so fail to reach the goal, to fall short of the end.TDNT
OF THE GLORY OF GOD>>a thing belonging to God; the kingly majesty which belongs to Him as supreme ruler; majesty in the sense of the absolute perfection of the deity. TDNT
BEING JUSTIFIED FREELY BY HIS GRACE>>We have been rendered innocent from all crime, the guilt thereof, and the punishment thereof; [freely] undeservedly and without merit on our part. Therefore, it is "by his grace" .
Justification, acquital or release from the charge and penalty of sin against us, is the result of our "sin debt" having been paid by Jesus Christ.
"Christ, by his obedience and death, did fully discharge the debt of all those that are justified; and did by the sacrifice of himself, in the blood of his cross, undergoing in their stead the penalty due unto them, make a proper, real and full satisfaction to God's Justice in their behalf; yet, inasmuch as he was given by the Father for them, and His obedience and satisfaction accepted in their stead, and both freely, not for anything in them, their justification is only of free grace, that both the exact justice and rich grace of God might be glorified in the justification of sinners."----London Confession 1689 Chapter 11, #3
THROUGH THE REDEMPTION THAT IS IN CHRIST JESUS>> Though it is free being "by his grace", yet there is a cost involved; "through the redemption in Christ Jesus."
[redemption] a releasing effected by payment of ransom.
Note: An underlying priciple of redemption developed in the old testament, is that of "kinship". An illustration of it occurs in the book of Ruth. The "right" of redemption belonged to the next of kin; Jesus Christ exercised the "right of redemption" when he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.
WHOM GOD HATH SET FORTH>> "set forth" from Strongs #4388; three occurrences; translated "purpose" in Ro.1:13 & Ep.1:9. It seems "set forth" best describes it as completed.
[God set before himself (purposed) and did it publicly before (pro) the whole world. ATR]
TO BE A PROPITIATION>>[propitiation, Strongs #2435 ] N.T. two times see mercyseat Heb.9.
[also # 2434 two times; 1 Jn.2:2; 4:10]
An interesting term; used as the expiatory sacrifice/ victim; also used as the place where man and God made contact (the mercyseat) and acceptance was obtained. A remarkable symbol of Christ.
God hath purposed in himself and exhibited publicly, that Christ is the "means" of His putting away sin. He is the expiating sacrifice.
Note: repentance is needful, as also are good works, but, neither can put away or atone for sin; nor is repentance and/or good works synonomous with forgivness. Carnal ease would rest content with good works rather than press on by faith to seek forgivness in Christ.
THROUGH FAITH IN HIS BLOOD>> primarily God's view of Christ's propitiatory sacrifice and His purpose accomplished thereby; secondarily, the revelation of His purpose in Christ, in the Gospel (faith's view).
Note: the "from faith to faith" principle. Faith can be both the orgin/source of some grace as well as a receptor.
TO DECLARE HIS RIGHTEOUSNESS>> not offer or proffer. To declare is to state or proclaim the fact of something. God's purpose is made manifest by the act of Christ's coming; the sign/evidence of his will. This makes manifest his intent to deal righteously against sin where it is found, even on Christ. [by imputation] In the O.T. the sins of the people were laid upon the sacrificial victim by imputaton, laying on of hands. The sins were confessed and thus imputed to the sacrifice.
The same Heb. word is often used interchangably for the actual sin itself, and the sin offering made for the sin. [see Lev.4] This teaches and fore-shadows the imputation of our sin upon Christ. "God was in Christ reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them." 2 Cor. 5:19
Note: This presents a strong argument against the "no hell" doctrine. If sin be reckoned and righteously dealt with when found on Christ, much more so when discovered upon the head of the wicked.
FOR THE REMISSION OF SINS THAT ARE PAST>> Remission [passing over]....different than other places, which denote "forgivness". The thought here is, the deferal of punishment due previous sins; which punishment was "passed over" for the time, but laid/imputed to Christ. It was "the forbearance" of God which made "passing over" or deferal possible.
Note: A graphic lesson for us; be not hasty or quick to avenge wrong done to us, or to deal harshly with the faults of others.
TO DECLARE>> to demonstrate, put forth, display. This emphasizes the matter of setting forth Christ as the propitiation (faith as a source/origin), and that of a outward or public nature. This agrees with Col.2: 15, "he made a shew of them openly in it."
AT THIS TIME>> the appointed time; the fulness of time.
HIS RIGHTEOUSNESS>> His righteousness in the Justification of sinners: the rightness of his justice in dealing with sin and ushering in grace.[not at the expense of Justice]
THAT HE MIGHT BE JUST>> he is just, but the point of argument is, that it might be apparent by the outward and public exhibition of the propitiation that he is just; just in taking notice of, and punishing sin, though it be found on Christ.
AND THE JUSTIFIER OF HIM WHICH BELIEVETH IN JESUS>> this is both objective and subjective;
1. objective from the standpoint of the actuality of the sinner's justification:
2. subjective from the standpoint of the sinner's realization of this fact; so that, the believing sinner acknowledges that God is hisJustifier. (this is faith as a receptor, recieving the revelation.)
Note: True belief can be tested on this issue, for it unreservedly acknowledges God as the full and complete Justifier. Unbelief must qualify the confession by including some degree of human agency.
WHERE IS BOASTING?>> "boasting", to glory in a negative sense. To vaunt or lift up oneself. As Justification is a work of God, what/where is there space or place for boasting on the part of the sinner?
IT IS EXCLUDED>>"excluded", to be shut out, prevented. Boasting is "excluded"; this is the constant theme of Paul's gospel; "not of works, lest any man should boast." Ep. 2:8-10
BY WHAT LAW? OF WORKS?>> The word "law" takes on a broader scope here. Literally, "a rule of action".
"of works?" signifies a rule of human action. The sense is, boasting is not excluded or shut out by human action, but rather, is the ground of boasting.[though it ought not to be so. see ch.2:17] Therefore, any law/rule relating to human action, cannot, by the very nature of it, prevent boasting.
NAY: BUT BY THE LAW OF FAITH>> again, a rule of action, but here it is "faith". As considered here, faith deals with Divine action, that is, activity that God has reserved and committed unto himself to do. The fact that the activity under consideration [justification] is a work done by God himself (apart from human action), proves that boasting is excluded.
Note: Faith "looks" both backward and forward. The "law of faith" is (as it were) a backward view; law relates to "that which is laid down" or established; a principle or origination of a thing. So, the law of faith looks backward, to what has been purposed (originated) or has already been performed (laid down).
This is in contrast (not opposition) to the description of faith in Heb. 11:1 where faith looks forward to that which is "hoped for", i.e., anticipation of that which is yet to come.
Note: Before I look at v.28 there are several terms related to justification which need to be considered; grace, blood, faith, works.
(1). grace...this refers to a distinguishing attribute of God which moves him to justify. In Ex.34:6,7 he has declared his name as, "The Lord, The Lord God, merciful and gracious, longsuffering, and abundant in goodness and truth, keeping mercy for thousands, forgiving inipuity and transgression and sin, and that will by no means clear the guilty; ".
Regarding this, let it be observed that "grace" itself does not justify, but is that excellence of the Divine nature which moves him to justify sinners and therefore "brings salvation". Titus 3:7
(2). blood...this refers to the procuring cause of Justification, and therefore indicates the death of Christ and the required payment of the "purchase price" by his atoning blood. It is by his blood that redemption was procured. 3:25; 5:8,9
Justification [the legal process] and reconcilliation [the result obtained] are procured and therefore ascribed to the death of Christ.see 5:8-10
(3). faith... relates to the mode by which Justification occurs and is manifested. Based on what has been observed regarding the blood of Christ procuring Justification, we need only point out that faith cannot be the procuring cause of Justifcation. It therefore must be connected in some other sense. (the same is true of the 4th term "works" )
(4). works...relate to the external evidence of a justified person living by faith. James covers this most clearly,
"Yea, a man may say, Thou hast faith, and I have works: shew me thy faith without thy works, and I will shew thee my faith by my works." Ja.2: 18
Justification by faith stands in contrast to the eroneous doctrine of justification by the deeds of the law. Much of the confusion of the Arminian and Legalist arises from the failure to recognize how the Law and Faith differ relative to God's will. Consider the following.
The law relates to God's will in commandment form; that is, what is required for man to do and observe. Faith relates to God's will contained in his purpose and promise in Christ Jesus; that is, what he has committed unto himself to do in the person of Christ. This is summed up in the work of Salvation.
Therefore, when the Scripture state that, "a man is justified by faith", it means that a man is justified by that (work) which God has committed himself to do. This work of Faith is revealed in the Gospel-- therefore "from faith to faith".
THEREFORE WE CONCLUDE THAT A MAN IS JUSTIFIED BY FAITH...>>
"Therefore", a conclusion concerning Justification is arrived at in his argument; it is by faith. It may be properly said that, "justification is by promise", for God revealing his will and committment to do a thing, is a promise. This form of argument is made upon the same topic in Gal. ch.3: 11,12, 21-23, where that which is of faith is linked with and spoken of as the "promises of God". In contrast, the law is linked with commandments and works that men are to do.
Note: Faith, as a gracious virtue in us, responds to both the law of God, and the promises of God. To the former, faith responds by obedience; to the latter, by belief and trust.
"conclude"; elsewhere translated "reckon, impute, reason, accounted". It is an accounting term and deals with reality, not supposition. Therefore, the "conclusion, or settled opinion" that Paul has arrived at, is grounded in facts and realities pertinent to the case, not supposition, wishful thinking, or fantasy.
A reasoning or accounting based on the relative facts of the case.
"a man is justified by faith"; this is the conclusion that Paul has drawn from the facts. What is contained in this statement? As noted above, "faith" relates to God's purpose and promise. Therefore, justification by "faith" relates to the fact and actuality of the purpose and committment of God accomplished in and by Christ.
"A man is justified by faith", in contrast to "by the law", by which no flesh shall be justified in the sight of God.(Gal.)
This verse establishes the way through which justification comes...faith & by promise, not law or works.
IS HE THE GOD OF THE JEWS ONLY?>>The one and same God is over all, and the justifier of him that believeth in Christ. The argument includes Gentiles.
OF THE GENTILES ALSO>>[Jews overlooked it then and some Christians do now. ATR]
SEEING IT IS ONE GOD, WHICH SHALL JUSTIFY THE CIRCUMCISION BY FAITH>>"by faith" (ek pisteos) 'out of faith', springing out of.
AND THE UNCIRCUMCISION THROUGH FAITH.>> "through faith" (dia tes pisteos) 'by means of the faith', just mentioned.
["ek" denotes source; "dia" intermediate agency or attendant circumstance. AT Robertson]
DO WE THEN MAKE VOID THE LAW THROUGH FAITH? GOD FORBID>>Paul anticipates the legalist's question. The legalist supposes that justification is through the law. Paul's argument that, "no, it is through faith", causes the legalist to conclude that this doctrine makes the law inoperative and to no purpose. The objection being, "If you are not righteous by keeping the law, then why keep it or urge others to?"
YEA, WE ESTABLISH THE LAW.>>
Rather, Paul adds, "we establish the law." That is, we verify what the law has declared, namely, "none righteous and all under sin." We put the law to it's proper use as God's standard for human conduct and behavior (not as a means to attain justification).
"Knowing this, that the law is not made for the righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient;" 1 Ti. 1:9
The law spotlights sin and condemns sinners.
Paul has now shown the "righteousness of God";
(1). in the just condemnation of mankind, whether Jew or Gentile; that they are all under sin. This according to their rejection of truth, whether the revelation of nature, or the law.
(2). in the just deliverance of sinners from the guilt and charge of sin through the redemption in Jesus Christ. This deliverance, called Justification, has come by faith; that is, by God's promise whereby he committed himself to this work in the person of his Son Jesus Christ.
I concede that my view of "justification by faith" is somewhat different than the usual explanation. It may be difficult to grasp. This is mostly due to my inability to express it as precisely as I would like. Undoubtedly my explanation of this important teaching will be revised as I find better words to express it. Above all, I desire the reader to understand and consider my basic premises for the view I hold. Therefore I conclude my comments on this chapter with this summary.
1a). Paul argues that Justification is not through the Law dispensation. The Law has a purpose and usefulness, but Justification is not it.
1b).The Law manifests God's righteousness in the just condemnation of sinners. He is not under obligation to save any on their merit.
2a).On the other hand, God has revealed a new kind of Righteousness, a Righteousness which is by "faith of Jesus Christ".
2b).This newly revealed Righteousness is the mode by which God justifies sinners.
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